So just to get this straight… you are willing to to broaden the definition of “loss” to include instances in which an object is taken and replaced with an identical object. You reason that due to some abstract sentimental attachment you had to the
original-object, the
replacement-object is not equivalent, even if it is indistinguishable. That’s a very nuanced view and it requires some justification for why the quirks of your emotional attachment should be considered when trying to measure if a tangible loss occurred.
But even in lieu of this nuanced understanding of “loss” you are endorsing, you still want to deny that copyright infringement is a loss in so far as a copyright holder upon infringement
loses their exclusive right to produce and distribute an object.
Arbitrary and inconsistent sophistry, but you are entitled to your opinion.