Whether you call it objective or not, I think everyone can agree that some actions like torture, exploitation, or genocide consistently cause suffering and undermine a society from cooperating. So no matter what framework you want to use, it is objectively the right choice to resist those things.
Your claim to objectivity seems to rest on the subjective experiences of suffering and societal cooperation. Are suffering and societal cooperation not dependent on human preferences and emotions? If so, how can they be considered objective?
Whether you call it objective or not
This poses a problem for us to have any sort of coherent discussion on the topic. Do you agree or disagree with defining objective morality as universal and independent of preferences determined by the context of culture, time, and geographical location. If you disagree, how do you define objectivity so that it avoids relativism?
I don't feel the need to address the appeal to a higher power as you haven't addressed the issues I gave previously. Once you can square those circles, we can keep the conversation moving.
Whether or not you feel the need, the burden is yours as you made the positive assertion. You are undermining your position by refusing to address the necessity of appealing to a higher standard to justify your claim.
The recap:
- Appealing to a god doesn’t solve Euthyphro’s dilemma.
Euthyphro's dilemma claims that God must either be arbitrary, therefore not necessarily good by nature, which subversively presupposes a moral standard external of Him, or there must be an external moral standard which even God appeals to. This is a false dilemma because both options presuppose a moral standard external of God. The Christian worldview affirms that God is not arbitrary in His commands, His nature is, by definition, good, and that His commands are not based upon any standard that is independent of Him. Morality is grounded in God’s eternal, unchanging, and perfectly good nature, which is the ultimate standard for goodness.
Why should I accept the presuppositions of a dilemma that misrepresents the nature of God and ignores, rather than engages with, the assertions of the Christian worldview? The dilemma only works when one assumes an unbiblical view of God and is unaware that it essentially frames the dilemma as choosing between a moral standard that is independent of God and a moral standard that is independent of God. I’m not even sure that can constitute as a dilemma because the “choices” to choose from are equivalent. Plato framed the dilemma so that he could reach his desired conclusion, morality/holiness/piety is independent of the pantheon.
- It doesn’t fix the fact that Christians still can’t agree on what their god commands.
How does this disprove Christianity? Disagreements among Christians do not undermine the truth of Christianity any more than disagreements among scientists undermine the validity of science. Christianity has been combatting heterodoxy since the 1st Century, as the New Testament epistles clearly demonstrate. For the claim that such disagreements disprove Christianity would mean that any disagreement on any subject necessitates rejection of that very subject. For example, there is a long history of disagreement regarding the implementation of legislation. Does the fact of this disagreement disprove all legislation? The logic just does not follow.
- And it doesn’t resolve the bible’s inconsistent treatment of human value across different passages.
I assert that the Bible is consistent. I'm not going to guess at the passages you are referring to. I can offer that I’ve found that supposed inconsistencies are from a lack of considering context (prescriptive vs descriptive passages), anachronistic misinterpretation, and the negligence of proper hermeneutics. It seems as though you have already decided that such responses I would give for each example will not be sufficient. You're already rooted in your desired conclusion. Rather than go through the effort of examining all of the passages that you have in mind in vain, let's go a bit deeper.
I believe that we may agree that consistency is a necessity for a claim to be true. On what basis does your worldview account for and justify this necessity of truth’s consistency?
Many apologists have tried, and none are convincing. It hasn't been done in over 2,000 years, and I don't expect it to be solved on an emulation message board.
The issue is that we are functioning based on antithetical and incompatible worldviews. Your worldview assumes that the God of the Bible does not exist, while my worldview assumes that He does exist. This means that we fundamentally differ in how we interpret evidence. For me, the very fact that I can reason and interpret evidence is proof of God’s existence. Your worldview, on the other hand, seems to take these wonderful faculties for granted without offering any foundation or justification for them.