D
Deleted User
Guest
OP
It happened many times before, Romans, Normans, Pre-Anglo/Saxon Celtic people, the Glorious Revolution
- Joined
- Aug 19, 2015
- Messages
- 10,195
- Trophies
- 1
- Location
- Glasgow
- Website
- www.rockstarnorth.com
- XP
- 16,156
- Country
is it poissble for a man who does not speak english to rule england?
Hello i guess you have never heard our current leader Boris Johnson speak
Hello i guess you have never heard our current leader Boris Johnson speak
Last edited by AmandaRose,
- Joined
- Aug 19, 2015
- Messages
- 10,195
- Trophies
- 1
- Location
- Glasgow
- Website
- www.rockstarnorth.com
- XP
- 16,156
- Country
Twice lolNot possible.
Germans/Austrian "tried"but failed.....
Ignoring that Germany was not a thing at the time (basically a mess of dozens of states -- the formation of Germany happening at various points depending upon who you ask but 1871 is a solid answer for most as stuff like the Confederation of the Rhine was more of Napoleon thing, and that is before we broach whatever Prussia is or was here and skip entirely over the Holy Roman Empire that was generally considered to be none of those three terms) there were way more cases than that
Prince Albert (Victoria's husband) was nominally the king, even if the practicalities and formalities were dodged (at the same time Windsor only appeared during World War 1, prior to that being Saxe-Coburg and Gotha which is the least German thing any of us have ever heard I am sure everybody would agree).
If we consider the Dutch as basically Germans (they live in the right place, Dutch is basically a guttural form of German... and I have now started a huge fight, got to get the Belgians in there somehow as well so Flemish = Dutch) then the 1680s Glorious Revolution might also count when a Dutch guy and his wife wandered in and called themselves king and queen (and ruled for over a decade which was pretty good going around that time -- https://www.historic-uk.com/HistoryUK/KingsQueensofBritain/ ).
The Austrians with that whole Austria-Hungary thing also had a hand at selecting and denying various spouses and "more power" was kind of a family motto really), and also depending upon your timeframe (England was not England right away, instead a bunch of states) then the Angles, Saxons, Frisians would have predated English (certainly modern English) but come from what is modern day Germany in some instances and came to rule the lands.
Don't even want to go into the Hanseatic League, though that was less rule and "let us dominate your trade".
This also leaves aside that the nobles of the time usually spoke French because that was the language of European nobility (similar to how the posh Romans most likely spoke Greek as that was the hot stuff -- see how much of Roman stuff is copy-pasted from Greek stuff). To that end even without it you might be going fairly recently before it is a first language (Henry the IV being a decent answer there).
https://www.theclassroom.com/first-english-king-speak-english-22560.html
Never mind that after that there was also the Scottish kings bit, though James 1/6 (who formally at least was the first) ultimately took steps to knock that Gaelic lark on the head and downplay Scots so there is that.
That is also noted as well. One of the more fun ones there is why archery, especially with the larger bows, was such a thing in the various parts of what would become the UK -- can afford such luxuries when you don't have to worry about your neighbours getting on a bunch of horses and bringing the pain.
Similar threads
- No one is chatting at the moment.
